Q. 301: What are the two most commonly used ADO objects?
A. Fields
B. Execute
C. Connection, RecordSet
D. Open, ConnectionString
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 302: How do you declare a constant?
A. Dim Statement
B. Con Statement
C. Const Statement
D. Option Explicit statement
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 303: What method is used to retrieve the number of columns in the query results?
A. Fields.Count
B. Fields.Item(EOF)
C. Fields.Count(BOF)
D. Fields.Count.Value
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 304: To bypass the Object Repository you can:
A. Turn the Object Repository off
B. Use a programmatic description
C. Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add the object to the Object Repository Manager
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 305: What does the ChildObjects method return?
A. A Collection object
B. A string true/false
C. A Boolean TRUE/FALSE
D. The number of objects matching the ChildObject description
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 306: What object is used to read information from a text file?
A. Read
B. ReadLine
C. TextStream
D. FileSystem
E. OpenTextFile
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 307: If you are typing in Expert View and you type an object followed by a dot, what does QuickTest display?
A. Nothing
B. The arguments for that object
C. The methods and properties for that object
D. The child objects and methods for that object
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 308: By default, how does QuickTest pass arguments to the procedure?
A. ByVal
B. ByRef
C. ByArg
D. ByRes
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 309: What object is used to send information to test results at the completion of the test run?
A. Result
B. Reporter
C. ReportEvent
D. ResultReport
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 310: If a procedure is defined in a test script, that procedure is accessible to which tests/scripts?
A. Only to other procedures
B. It is not usable to any test scripts
C. The test script in which it is defined
D. Using the Step Generator, it is available to any test script
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
Q. 301
|
C
|
Q. 302
|
C
|
Q. 303
|
A
|
Q. 304
|
B
|
Q. 305
|
A
|
Q. 306
|
C
|
Q. 307
|
D
|
Q. 308
|
B
|
Q. 309
|
B
|
Q. 310
|
C
|
Q. 311: When does a Do loop statement evaluate for continuation?
A. At the end of the loop
B. At the start of the loop
C. At the start or the end of the loop
D. This loop uses a counter variable
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 312: How can you retrieve the number of items in the list for a WebList object?
A. GetList
B. GetItem
C. GetItemsCount
D. GetROProperty
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 313: What is the difference between a subroutine and a function?
A. A subroutine can call itself; a function cannot
B. A function returns a value; a subroutine cannot
C. A function can accept arguments; a subroutine cannot.
D. A subroutine can call other procedures; a function cannot.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 314: What method is used to send a run-time Data sheet to an Excel file?
A. Send
B. Export
C. SendSheet
D. Exportsheet
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 315: What looping statements are available in QuickTest?
A. While end, Do loop, If Then
B. Switch Case, If Ten, For Next
C. For Next, While End, Do Loop
D. For Text, Do Loop, Switch Chase
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 316: What does the GetTOProperty method do?
A. Retrieves the value of a property from a test object
B. Retrieves the available properties from a test object
C. Retrieves the value of a property from a run-time object
D. Retrieves the available properties from a run-time object
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 317: To use low-level recording, what must you do first?
A. Start a new test
B. Be in the KeyWord view
C. Be recording in Normal mode
D. Click Low Level Recording under the Automation Menu
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 318: What is the correct set of add-ins installed automatically with QuickTest 9.2?
A. NET, Web, Java
B. Web, SAP, Visual Basic
C. Active X, Visual Basic, Web
D. Active X, TE, Web Services
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 319: What information can be seen in the information pane?
A. Syntax errors
B. The test name and author
C. The QTP license information
D. The machine id and operating system
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 320: What does a breakpoint do?
A. Stops test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
B. Stops test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
C. Pauses test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
D. Pauses test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
Q. 311
|
C
|
Q. 312
|
D
|
Q. 313
|
B
|
Q. 314
|
D
|
Q. 315
|
C
|
Q. 316
|
A
|
Q. 317
|
C
|
Q. 318
|
C
|
Q. 319
|
A
|
Q. 320
|
D
|
Q. 321: Which of the following is an example of a missing resource?
A. An object
B. Run Results
C. A Regular Action
D. An External
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 322: What are the available step commands in QuickTest?
A. Step, Step Into, Step Out
B. Step Into, Step Over, Step Out
C. Step Test, Step Action, Step Function
D. Run from Step, Debug from Step, Run from Step
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 323: When a test is run in update mode, what is updated?
A. The test results
B. The object descriptions
C. The action names in the test
D. The logical names in the test
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 324: What are the phases in the QuickTest workflow?
A. Plan, Record, Enhance, Run
B. Prepare, Record, Verify, Run
C. Plan, Create, Verify & Enhance
D. Prepare, Create, Verify & Enhance, Integrate
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 325: Why is low-level recording mode useful?
A. It records exact keyboard operations on an object.
B. It records exact coordinates of all mouse movements.
C. It uses the object repository to determine what methods can be used.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 326: What are test object properties?
A. Those properties as defined in a description Object
B. Those properties as defined in Object identification
C. Those properties displayed by an object at run-time
D. Those properties used in the Object Repository for object identification
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 327: What is the function of the Object Repository Manager?
A. Assign variable names to test objects
B. View/make/modify a Local Object Repository
C. View/make/modify a Shared Object Repository
D. Define new test objects using programmatic descriptions
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 328: Where are virtual object collections stored?
A. In a Function Library
B. In the local Object Repository
C. In the Object Repository Manager
D. Dat folder inside of the QTP installation directory
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 329: In the Object Identification dialog box, which properties can be viewed?
A. The base filter and optional properties
B. The mandatory and optional properties
C. The base filter and assistive properties
D. The mandatory and assistive properties
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 330: Where do you turn Smart Identification IN?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Test Settings dialog
C. The General Options dialog
D. The Object Identification dialog
Question No.
|
Correct Answer
|
Q. 321
|
D
|
Q. 322
|
B
|
Q. 323
|
B
|
Q. 324
|
D
|
Q. 325
|
A
|
Q. 326
|
D
|
Q. 327
|
C
|
Q. 328
|
D
|
Q. 329
|
D
|
Q. 330
|
D
|
Q. 331: How do you know if Smart Identification has been used in a test?
A. The Smart Identification icon appears in the test results
B. The test results will show a run error, causing a test failure
C. The properties used by the object repository will be changed
D. The Object Repository will show the Smart Identification icon
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 332: What options are available to filter objects in the Target Object Repository pane when merging object repositories?
A. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting object types
B. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
C. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting object types
D. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 333: What is the default ordinal identifier?
A. The location
B. The object id
C. The nativeclass
D. The index number
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 334: Which statement is used to associate a procedure with a test object class?
A. RegisterFunction
B. RegisterUserProc
C. RegisterUserFunc
D. RegisterProcedure
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 335: What must you do before a shared object repository can be edited?
A. Enable Editing
B. Add a new object
C. Open the object repository
D. Open an action that uses that shared object repository
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 336: Where do you configure an action to use a shared object repository?
A. Test Settings
B. Action Settings
C. Action Call Properties
D. Associate Repositories
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 337: You should use local object repositories when you:
A. Work with single-action tests
B. Work with multiple-action tests
C. Create multiple tests for a single application
D. Expect the test object properties to change frequently
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 338: Where can you merge two shared object repositories?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Object Repository Manager
C. The Associate Object Repositories Tool
D. You can only merge local object repositories
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 339: In the Expert View, the following is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action?
A. Action List
B. Expert List
C. Check List
D. View List
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 340: When you modify the name of an object, in the local object repository the name is automatically updated in _____ for all occurrences of the object
A. Keyword View
B. Both Keyword & Expert View
C. Expert View
D. Changing the name of an object does not affect keyword or Expert View
| Question No. | Correct Answer |
| Q. 331 | A |
| Q. 332 | B |
| Q. 333 | A |
| Q. 334 | C |
| Q. 335 | A |
| Q. 336 | D |
| Q. 337 | A |
| Q. 338 | B |
| Q. 339 | A |
| Q. 340 | B |
Q. 341: When does QuickTest Professional 9.2 use assistive properties for an object?
A. Only when Smart Identification is enabled
B. When the Ordinal identifier is set to Index
C. When the base filter properties are not sufficient for unique identification
D. When the mandatory properties are not sufficient for unique identification
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 342: When a test with multiple actions is saved, which component is added in each action within the test?A. User log file
B. Global Data Table
C. Object Repository
D. Active Screen settings
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 343: The test settings of Test A have been set to Run from row 1 to row 4 in the Data Table iterations section. Action As Action Call Properties is set to Run all rows. How many times in total will Action A be executed if the Local Data Table has 5 rows and the Global Data Table has 10 rows? A. 20
B. 40
C. 14
D. 50
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 344: When enhancing your tests, what do programmatic descriptions allow you to do? Select three. A. Utilize the Object Repository.
B. Bypass the Object Repository.
C. Perform the same operation on a list of objects with similar properties.
D. Perform different operations on a list of objects with different properties.
E. Perform an operation on a dynamic object chosen based on run-time object properties.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 345: Which QuickTest Professional tool can be used to identify the Run-time Object Properties and Methods of an object in the application under test?
A. Object Spy
B. Object Repository
C. Object Identification
D. Object Repository Manage
r<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 346: Why are regular expressions used in tests? Select two.
A. To set an object property
B. To define an object property
C. To check the addins installed
D. To define a checkpoint's range of values
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 347: How can you make a test bypass the Object Repository during test run?
A. Turn the Object Repository off
B. Use a programmatic description
C. Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add the object in the Object Repository Manager
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 348: How can you tell that QuickTest Professional 9.2 is running a test in Normal mode?
A. It minimizes the Active Screen.
B. It displays an execution marker.
C. It does not display an execution marker.
D. It displays a message box indicating it is running in Normal mode.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 349: During recording, which function key generates a Standard Checkpoint?
A. F1
B. F3
C. F10
D. F12
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 350: Which file contains the sequence of user actions captured during recording?
A. Script.mts
B. Default.xls
C. Resource.mtr
D. ObjectRepository.bdb
| Question No. | Correct Answer |
| Q. 341 | D |
| Q. 342 | C |
| Q. 343 | A |
| Q. 344 | B,C,E |
| Q. 345 | A |
| Q. 346 | B,D |
| Q. 347 | B |
| Q. 348 | B |
| Q. 349 | D |
| Q. 350 | A |
Q. 351: Which components are created by default with each new action? Select three.
A. Folder
B. Local Data Sheet
C. Global Data Sheet
D. Local Object Repository
E. Global Object Repository
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 352: Which utility object can be used to send a message to the Test Results?
A. Setting
B. Reporter
C. Properties
D. Environment
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 353: What are the two main options available in the Record and Run Settings dialog box for Windows applications? Select two.
A. Record and Run Only On
B. Record and Run Test on Any Open Browser
C. Record and Run Only on the Windows Desktop
D. Record and Run Test on Any Open Windows-based Application
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 354: What is the keyword used to define how the counter variable in a ForNext loop increments?
A. ++
B. Skip
C. Step
D. ExitFor
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 355: How does QuickTest Professional categorize an object?
A. By its Value
B. By its Class
C. By its Properties
D. By its Window focus
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 356: Which QuickTest Professional term describes a function that provides more time for an object to process before moving on to the next step?
A. Test Object
B. Wait Statement
C. Custom Checkpoint
D. Synchronization Point
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 357: Which type of parameter is system-generated during a test run?
A. Output
B. Environment
C. XML Structure
D. Random number
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 358: What are the elements of a test step in QuickTest Professional 9.2? Select three.
A. Item
B. Value
C. Action
D. Window
E. Process
F. Operation
G. Procedure<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 359: Which of the following are valid settings for the Active Screen capture level? Select three.
A. All
B. Full
C. Partial
D. Complete
E. Minimum
F. Maximum
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 360: During recording, from which command or feature can you add a Synchronization point?
A. Edit menu
B. Insert menu
C. Tools menu
D. Active Screen
| Question No. | Correct Answer |
| Q. 351 | A,B,D |
| Q. 352 | B |
| Q. 353 | A,D |
| Q. 354 | C |
| Q. 355 | B |
| Q. 356 | D |
| Q. 357 | D |
| Q. 358 | A,B,F |
| Q. 359 | C,D,E |
| Q. 360 | B |
Q. 361: After running a test that contains output parameters, where can a user find the results of an output parameter?
A. Active Screen
B. Test Summary
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 362: What are the default capture levels of Active Screen in QuickTest Professional 9.2?
A. All, Most, Some, None
B. Partial, None, Full, Leas
C. Maximum, Minimum, Partial, None
D. None, Complete, Partial, Minimum
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 363: What can you accomplish using the Expert View that you are unable accomplish in the Keyword View? Select two.
A. Run parameter values
B. Retrieve test object properties
C. Retrieve run-time object properties
D. Compare and compute object values
E. Add checkpoints from the ActiveScreen
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 364: Which feature in the Expert View presents options to finish the current VBScript line you are typing?
A. Function Generator
B. Auto-expand VBScript
C. Statement completion
D. Context-sensitive help
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 365: Which type of parameter contains the value of a property captured from the application during a test run?
A. Input
B. Output
C. XML structure
D. Random number
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 366: What does the GetTOProperty method do?
A. It retrieves the value of a property from a test object.
B. It retrieves the available properties from a test object.
C. It retrieves the value of a property from a run-time object.
D. It retrieves the available properties from a run-time object.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 367: What is a user-defined object class in the Object Identification dialog?
A. An object class that is defined at run time
B. A standard object mapped to a standard class
C. A user-defined object class mapped to a standard class
D. An object class that is defined by the application under test
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 368: Which scripting language is used by QuickTest Professionals Expert View?
A. TSL
B. VBScript
C. JavaScript
D. QuickTestScript
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 369: Which compressed file type does QuickTest Professional use to export a test?
A. .rar
B. .zip
C. .iso
D. .pak
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 370: Which Checkpoint type provides QuickTest Professional with a way to check one or more properties of an object?
A. Text Checkpoint
B. Bitmap Checkpoint
C. Standard Checkpoint
D. Accessibility Checkpoint
| Question No. | Correct Answer |
| Q. 361 | C |
| Q. 362 | D |
| Q. 363 | C,D |
| Q. 364 | C |
| Q. 365 | B |
| Q. 366 | A |
| Q. 367 | C |
| Q. 368 | B |
| Q. 369 | B |
| Q. 370 | C |
Q. 371: Which menu command do you use to associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Action Properties
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 372: You have just stopped recording steps into your test. Your application-under-test is still up and visible on your screen. You now wish to add some checkpoints into your test using the menu command, Insert -> Checkpoint from the Toolbar. Which checkpoints are available to you? Select two.
A. Text checkpoint
B. XML checkpoint
C. Bitmap checkpoint
D. Text Area checkpoint
E. Database checkpoint
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 373: When preparing to run your automated test, from where in the QuickTest Professional 9.2 interface do you restrict the number of iterations an Action will execute?
A. The Test Flow dialog
B. The Test Settings dialog
C. The Action Properties dialog
D. The Action Call Properties dialog
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 374: Which looping statements are available in QuickTest Professional? Select three.
A. IfThen
B. ForNext
C. Do...Loop
D. While...Wend
E. SwitchCase
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 375: Which method can be used to store a Data Table sheet in an Excel file during the test execution?
A. Send
B. Write
C. SendSheet
D. ExportSheet
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 376: Which character is used to combine multiple statements on one line in QuickTest Professional 9.2 Expert View?
A. A colon
B. A hyphen
C. A semi-colon
D. An underscore
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 377: When a test is run in Update mode, what options can you select? Select three.
A. The Data table
B. The checkpoint properties
C. The Test Object descriptions
D. The action names in the test
E. The logical names in the test
F. The Active Screen images and values
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 378: While working in the Expert View, you type an object followed by a dot. What does QuickTest Professional display after that dot? Select three.
A. The parent object
B. The child objects
C. The methods for that object
D. The properties for that object
E. The arguments for that object
F. The checkpoints for that object
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 379: To use environment variables to specify the applications or browsers you want to use for your test run, you must use the appropriate variable names e.g. the variable name for the Web address to display in the browser is
A. URL_VAR
B. URL_EN
C. URL_ENV
D. URL_VA
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 380: To bypass the Object Repository you can:
A. Turn the Object Repository off
B. Use a programmatic description
C. Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add the object to the Object Repository Manager
| Question No. | Correct Answer |
| Q. 371 | B |
| Q. 372 | B,E |
| Q. 373 | D |
| Q. 374 | B,C,D |
| Q. 375 | D |
| Q. 376 | A |
| Q. 377 | B,C,F |
| Q. 378 | B,C,D |
| Q. 379 | B |
| Q. 380 | B |
Q - 381: How can you add recordable or non-recordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 382: What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of?
A. Calls to actions
B. Calls to actions (reusable only)
C. Calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. Calls and copies of actions
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 383: What are the advantages of automated testing? (Select three.)
A. Easier
B. Consistent
C. Reusable
D. Proactive
E. Abstract
F. Productive
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 384: During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to achieve testing goals. Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?
A. Input data
B. Parameters
C. Initial and end conditions
D. Visual cues
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 385: Which QuickTest Professional feature displays the recorded steps in graphical format?
A. Data Table
B. Active Screen
C. Keyword View
D. Expert View
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 386: Which QuickTest Professional features can be customized using the Customize menu command? (Select two.)
A. Menus
B. General options
C. Test Settings
D. Active Screen
E. Toolbars <<<<<< =================== >>>>>>Q - 387: In which Options tab can you set the option to minimize the space your stored test will require? A. Active Screen
B. General
C. Run
D. Environment
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 388: Which Active Screen capture level is the default setting?
A. Complete
B. Limited
C. Partial
D. Minimum
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 389: Which actions can you perform using the Active Screen? (Select two.)
A Modify objects.
B. Insert standard checkpoints.
C. Insert XML checkpoints.
D. Insert transactions.
E. Insert steps.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 390: You record and save your test on a shared network drive as SampleWebTest. What is created on the shared drive?
A. A file named SampleWebTest.qtp
B. A folder named SampleWebTest
C. A file named SampleWebTest Action1
D. A temporary folder structure
| Question No. | Correct Answer |
| Q. 381 | A,B,E |
| Q. 382 | A |
| Q. 383 | B,C,F |
| Q. 384 | C |
| Q. 385 | C |
| Q. 386 | A,E |
| Q. 387 | A |
| Q. 388 | C |
| Q. 389 | B,E |
| Q. 390 | B |
Q - 391: What are examples of a visual cue condition? (Select two.)
A. A button becomes visible.
B. A record is inserted in the database.
C. A progress bar displays.
D. A button becomes enabled.
E. A bitmap displays.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 392: Identify the available column names in the Keyword View. (Select four.)
A. Value
B. Documentation
C. Object
D. Record settings
E. Property
F. Method
G. Operation
H. Item
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 393: Click Next or More to continue. Click the Task button.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 394: How does QuickTest Professional identify each object you record?
A. By class and properties
B. By class and methods
C. By methods and properties
D. By class only
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 395: Which term is used to define the name QuickTest Professional assigns is a recorded object?
A. Physical Name
B. Object Name
C. Repository Name
D. Logical Name
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 396: What is the best use of the Define New Test Object feature of the object repository?
A. To add a new object planned for your application
B. To add an object recently added to your application
C. To add an object you forgot to record
D. To add a new instance of a test object with properties that have changed
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 397: After regarding your test, you review the object repository and find three objects named button, button 1, and button 2. Which object repository feature enables you to identify the object in your application?
A. Locate in Application
B. Search in Repository
C. Highlight in Application
D. Identify in Application
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 398: Which step categories can be added using the Step Generator Tool? (Select three.)
A. Run-time objects
B. Default object types
C. Test objects
D. Utility objects
E. Data objects
F. Functions
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 399: Which item is used to identify the values captured by QuickTest during and used in a checkpoint as reference value during a test run?
A. Actual value
B. Expected value
C. Recorded value
D. Updated value
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q - 400: A QuickTest Professional automation benefit is the ability to increase test result reliability by checking visual cues. Which visual cue requires a tedious check in manual testing, but can be easily checked in QuickTest Professional?
A. Text attachment
B. Colors of a bitmap
C. Grayed-out field
D. Existence of a bitmap
| Question No. | Correct Answer |
| Q. 391 | A,D |
| Q. 392 | A,B,G,H |
| Q. 393 | In Picture |
| Q. 394 | A |
| Q. 395 | D |
| Q. 396 | A |
| Q. 397 | C |
| Q. 398 | C,D,F |
| Q. 399 | B |
| Q. 400 | B |
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